In said movement Beethoven writes a C_1 (three octaves below the piano central C) for the double basses. It happens during the first tutti. Now, looking at the score, you'll be able to see this is the only place in the whole symphony where he writes the double basses in such a way that a note lies bellow the double bass 4th string, thus making impossible for the instrument to play it.
But in the 3rd and 9th symphonies something simmilar happens. Namely, nowhere in the score the double basses have a note below the range of the instrument. Now suppose the same thing happens with the rest of the symphonies. I'm speaking about the 3rd, the 5th and the 9th. If it happened that the same happens with the 7th, then we would have that in all the symphonies where the master makes use of a large orchestra the are no "extra" notes for the double bass.
But then the question arises: why did Beethoven do this only in a single measure in a single movement of a single symphony? Because I'm sure neither in the 1st, nor in the 2nd nor in the 4th nor in the 6th nor in the 8th there are extra notes for the doublee basses. Can somebody answer the question?
But in the 3rd and 9th symphonies something simmilar happens. Namely, nowhere in the score the double basses have a note below the range of the instrument. Now suppose the same thing happens with the rest of the symphonies. I'm speaking about the 3rd, the 5th and the 9th. If it happened that the same happens with the 7th, then we would have that in all the symphonies where the master makes use of a large orchestra the are no "extra" notes for the double bass.
But then the question arises: why did Beethoven do this only in a single measure in a single movement of a single symphony? Because I'm sure neither in the 1st, nor in the 2nd nor in the 4th nor in the 6th nor in the 8th there are extra notes for the doublee basses. Can somebody answer the question?
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