Beethoven said something in relation to it. Like "A tonality is not changeable with another tonality" or "Each tonality has a character of its own". In the days of Bach tonality was not that important. A piece could be transposed from F to G and nobody thought it would change the character of the music. Today we all view tonality as Beethoven did. Nobody even questions it. E major is heroic and C major is bright. Yes, the thing is subjective. What was heroic to Beethoven was not so perhaps to Brahms. But, even subjectively, is there really a difference among E major and C major? The science of psychoacoustics must have something to say, but I never heard or read a scientific explanation about this matter. Pretty sure the thing must have been put to a test in the laboratory, but the results must be known only to scholars.
Let's simplify and stick ourselves to the piano for the moment. How can the Moonlight sonata be different if played in C minor? Well, at least in two very sensible ways. First, the whole piece has shifted down one semitone. It now sounds move grave, more heavy, the low frequency energy has augmented and some high frecuency content has been lost. Secondly, not all keys in the keyboard have the same timbre. If we took C_3 and electronically shift its frequency spectrum up one octave, we would not have C_2. Each key has a characteristic timbre, in the same way that the quality of sound in the open A string is different from that of the G string in a violin, apart from the difference in pitch. So, by playing Moonlight in C minor, we effectively change its character.
The question is: in what degree can the human ear perceive it? Lets now move on to another "instrument". The symphonic orchestra playing a given composition, which we consider fix, in several tonalities. By the same argument as in the piano case, the first chord in the sixth measure will be changed in timbre if we play it one semitone lower. Plus, assuming there is room for the displacement in the bass sections of the orchestra, there will be a shift in frecuency our ear can perceive. This second effect I negate any consequence, except for occasional transposing an octave higher say, an E in the double basses or a C or B flat in the flute. As to the former, the difference in timbre, in that chord, when played at two different pitches, is now more subtle and complex, compared to the piano. Does it ease perception of the difference or makes it more difficult? I do not know. Suppose it's even harder than in the case of the piano. Then we have that absolute perception of tonality, as the thing everybody agrees on, is at least debatable.
Let's simplify and stick ourselves to the piano for the moment. How can the Moonlight sonata be different if played in C minor? Well, at least in two very sensible ways. First, the whole piece has shifted down one semitone. It now sounds move grave, more heavy, the low frequency energy has augmented and some high frecuency content has been lost. Secondly, not all keys in the keyboard have the same timbre. If we took C_3 and electronically shift its frequency spectrum up one octave, we would not have C_2. Each key has a characteristic timbre, in the same way that the quality of sound in the open A string is different from that of the G string in a violin, apart from the difference in pitch. So, by playing Moonlight in C minor, we effectively change its character.
The question is: in what degree can the human ear perceive it? Lets now move on to another "instrument". The symphonic orchestra playing a given composition, which we consider fix, in several tonalities. By the same argument as in the piano case, the first chord in the sixth measure will be changed in timbre if we play it one semitone lower. Plus, assuming there is room for the displacement in the bass sections of the orchestra, there will be a shift in frecuency our ear can perceive. This second effect I negate any consequence, except for occasional transposing an octave higher say, an E in the double basses or a C or B flat in the flute. As to the former, the difference in timbre, in that chord, when played at two different pitches, is now more subtle and complex, compared to the piano. Does it ease perception of the difference or makes it more difficult? I do not know. Suppose it's even harder than in the case of the piano. Then we have that absolute perception of tonality, as the thing everybody agrees on, is at least debatable.
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