Originally posted by Sorrano
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On the nature of music.
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Originally posted by Philip View PostYes, painting and sculptures and so on will eventually over time deteriorate but as mentioned above, at least we have the possibility to preserve an 'image' digitally or even take castings of the original sculpture to preserve its original form.
Your question highlighted above is very interesting, and I would like to suggest that in fact there is a sort of 'deterioration' over time, though this 'deterioration' is of another order: original impact and 'meaning'. For example, I listen sometimes to the music of PĂ©rotin; it has for me something so historically distant (which is true, relatively speaking of course) that I find it hard to engage with other than 'academically', even acousmatically, if you see what I mean; in other terms, it has ceased to "speak to me".
The same applies - albeit to a far lesser degree - with LvB 5 or the Eroica: I cannot possibly recreate as I listen to these symphonies the original impact that they surely had on B's contemporaries. Has not something been lost over the centuries since their first performances? I am further reminded of Warren Kirkendale's essay "New Roads to Old Ideas in Beethoven's Missa solemnis" that points out how we may have lost track of certain musical imagery used by B in this work. Adorno refers to it as an "alienated masterpiece". A sort of deterioration, then? Not a material one, clearly, but perhaps something equally important : a work's 'meaning'.
From another point of view, we like western music because we listen to it since our childhood. Our ears have been educated in the major-minor system. Otherwise, it would be unintelligible. In the same way, those inhabitants of the Far East who appreciate Western music, do so because they have become used to it. And if we listened to modal music since when we are born we would love Perotin.
However I think medieval music has been made obsolete by 18th and 19th century music. If we cannot engage with Perotin, or Desprez or Palestrina for that matter, it is because we know something better, more valuable. Music evolves. And evolution, during a certain lapse of time, is improvement. All these things I believe are true. But I do not know how to arrive at a conclusion starting from them. Let it be the job of somebody smarter of wiser than me.
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Originally posted by Enrique View Post
However I think medieval music has been made obsolete by 18th and 19th century music. If we cannot engage with Perotin, or Desprez or Palestrina for that matter, it is because we know something better, more valuable. Music evolves. And evolution, during a certain lapse of time, is improvement. All these things I believe are true. But I do not know how to arrive at a conclusion starting from them. Let it be the job of somebody smarter of wiser than me.'Man know thyself'
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Originally posted by Philip View PostYes, painting and sculptures and so on will eventually over time deteriorate but as mentioned above, at least we have the possibility to preserve an 'image' digitally or even take castings of the original sculpture to preserve its original form.
Your question highlighted above is very interesting, and I would like to suggest that in fact there is a sort of 'deterioration' over time, though this 'deterioration' is of another order: original impact and 'meaning'. For example, I listen sometimes to the music of PĂ©rotin; it has for me something so historically distant (which is true, relatively speaking of course) that I find it hard to engage with other than 'academically', even acousmatically, if you see what I mean; in other terms, it has ceased to "speak to me".
The same applies - albeit to a far lesser degree - with LvB 5 or the Eroica: I cannot possibly recreate as I listen to these symphonies the original impact that they surely had on B's contemporaries. Has not something been lost over the centuries since their first performances? I am further reminded of Warren Kirkendale's essay "New Roads to Old Ideas in Beethoven's Missa solemnis" that points out how we may have lost track of certain musical imagery used by B in this work. Adorno refers to it as an "alienated masterpiece". A sort of deterioration, then? Not a material one, clearly, but perhaps something equally important : a work's 'meaning'.
As to the original impact of a work, well that implies that after only one performance the effect is lessened, but we know that isn't always the case - often it takes many hearings to fully appreciate a piece. I'm reminded of Peter Warlock's words ". . . Music is neither old nor modern: it is either good or bad music, and the date at which it was written has no significance whatever. Dates and periods are of interest only to the student of musical history. . . . All old music was modern once, and much more of the music of yesterday already sounds more old-fashioned than works which were written three centuries ago. All good music, whatever its date, is ageless - as alive and significant today as it was when it was written . ."'Man know thyself'
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I think every civilization has known a golden age for literature, the fine arts, music and so on. I think human realizations follow a curve of improvement up to a certain point where they begin to decline. Take Greek theater. From humble origins up to the works of Sophocles and Euripides, there has certainly been improvement. Why have historians called classical to certain periods in the history of art? This is the definition of the word given by wiktionary:
1. Of or relating to the first class or rank, especially in literature or art.
5. Of or pertaining to the ancient Greeks and Romans, especially to Greek or Roman authors of the highest rank, or of the period when their best literature was produced; of or pertaining to places inhabited by the ancient Greeks and Romans, or rendered famous by their deeds.
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Originally posted by Enrique View PostI think every civilization has known a golden age for literature, the fine arts, music and so on. I think human realizations follow a curve of improvement up to a certain point where they begin to decline. Take Greek theater. From humble origins up to the works of Sophocles and Euripides, there has certainly been improvement. Why have historians called classical to certain periods in the history of art? This is the definition of the word given by wiktionary:
"of the period when their best literature was produced". Hence, there was another period when Greek or Roman literature was not so good. Now, if this is true for literature, why is it so difficult to accept it is true for music too? When the ancient world collapsed and the barbarians broke in the ecumene, was not this a gigantic retrograde step in the general development of art and literature, which were already by this time poorly represented? Is it conceivable that in the lapse of a century literature could go back to the high standards set up by classical antiquity? I don't think so. So there must have been a period lasting several centuries during which the realizations of art and literature were below those standards. In my opinion, this period embraces Gregorian chant and the Notre Dame school.
Yes I agree that there are high points in creativity such as 5th century BC Athens, The Renaissance etc.. However I don't agree about the Notre Dame school which is remembered precisely because it did stand out as a high point in the Middle ages. Regarding your argument about evolution, well there are difficulties here as well, for example is Beethoven 'superior' to Mozart, Bach or Handel? Are Wagner and Mahler 'superior' to Beethoven?'Man know thyself'
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Originally posted by Enrique View PostWell, I was speaking about whole periods in the history of art or music. Both Bach and Wagner belong to the common practice period.'Man know thyself'
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Originally posted by Peter View PostWell yes in that wider context I'd agree with you, - no music in human history has surpassed that produced from the 16th century to the 20th. As to the late 20th century and the present, I think we are too close to be able to say - posterity is the greatest judge. My own view is that there has been a steady decline from the early 20th century on, I know others will disagree! This is generally the case historically.
As to whether European civilization has already reached its highest point and is now declining, I wouldn't dare to say, but this has been the opinion of many scholars. For example, Oswald Spengler's The Decline of the West. One thing can be said for sure. In the time of Beethoven and Mozart, there was a strong communication between composer and audience. Mozart premiered an opera, and the following day people in the street were whistling some tune from it. Nowadays the composer lives in a state of isolation, and we go to the concert hall to listen to music of people who have died a long time ago. I do not think this speaks well of contemporary music.
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Originally posted by Peter View PostWell yes in that wider context I'd agree with you, - no music in human history has surpassed that produced from the 16th century to the 20th. As to the late 20th century and the present, I think we are too close to be able to say - posterity is the greatest judge. My own view is that there has been a steady decline from the early 20th century on, I know others will disagree! This is generally the case historically.
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Originally posted by Sorrano View PostWhat criteria do you consider in determining a steady decline?
Historically it is quite clear that there are high periods of creativity and although we are too close to judge, I do feel that say in 200 years times, it will be apparent that a decline set in from the mid 20th century on. A personal view that I know many here won't share!'Man know thyself'
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Originally posted by Peter View PostEnrique raised some pretty good points himself - the complete lack of public interest in music written today, except for a small minority is surely not a good sign that modern music is connecting with the public in a way that was the case in the past - today we listen primarily to the music of dead composers, whilst this was the complete opposite in Beethoven's time.
Historically it is quite clear that there are high periods of creativity and although we are too close to judge, I do feel that say in 200 years times, it will be apparent that a decline set in from the mid 20th century on. A personal view that I know many here won't share!
Personal tastes will differ, of course, but to judge something collectively there has to be an agreement on what makes quality in the object/art or whatever.
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Had not musica profana in the Middle Ages a much bigger audience than musica sacra? Then this lack a popularity of classical music is not a new phenomenon. I think it has always been that way. The easier and more trivial the music the more people that listen to it. So Sorrano's would not be a counterargument.
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Originally posted by Enrique View PostHad not musica profana in the Middle Ages a much bigger audience than musica sacra? Then this lack a popularity of classical music is not a new phenomenon. I think it has always been that way. The easier and more trivial the music the more people that listen to it. So Sorrano's would not be a counterargument.
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Originally posted by Sorrano View PostBut the musica profana exists and is part of the whole picture, the culture that we are.
On the other hand, I think Peter's point was not the popularity of a given type of music, but the connection between the composer and the public. Although both things are related they are different things. I think the latter concept is a qualitative one whereas the former is purely quantitative.
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