Harmonic origins
Generally historians suggest that polyphony didn't exist until the middle ages, but I'm sure they are quite wrong about this. I'm reading the letters of Seneca (1st century AD) at the moment and he quite clearly refers to 'harmony', 'concord' and combinations of notes. It seems extremely odd that no one would have combined different pitches until the middle ages!
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'Man know thyself' -
But I guess "polyphony" refers to some degree of counterpoint and freedom of more than one voice at the same time. In the (really) classical times they'd use quite a lot of modal harmonies, but I don't think it was polyphony, just good ol' melody and accompaignment.Originally posted by Peter View Post"Wer ein holdes Weib errungen..."
"My religion is the one in which Haydn is pope." - by me
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"Set a course, take it slow, make it happen."
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